/u/anonymousposter357 on How common is it to be incapable of experiencing arousal, ever?

among women, only 60% or so masturbate at all.

I think that statistic is very old, and I'm not even sure how accurate it was to begin with.

Like I think that was from the Kinsey report? Which was a long time ago and had a lot of flaws to begin with. But apparently no one's even tried to do a survey that big and comprehensive since then, so people keep quoting it.

Even if it was accurate at the time, I suspect the number has gone up due to cultural changes that would reduce shame and somewhat higher awareness of female anatomy.

Because I know that for me it would be absolutely physically impossible. Like, I just dont feel a damn thing, and my body doesn't react to stimuli of any kind. It would be literally impossible for me to masturbate even if i wanted to. Is that a common experience?

That sounds like it would probably be clinically diagnosable as a sexual arousal disorder. Medically speaking, that is not normal at all.

I don't know what the prevalence rate is for that, but I doubt it's anywhere near 40% of women.

However it may be somewhat more common amongst asexuals than the general population, or even sometimes be mistaken for asexuality by itself. IDRK about that.





July 22, 2019 at 12:01AM
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